As I'm thinking through my sermon for this coming Sunday morning, a phrase in Romans 6:4 has me thinking. Now, I haven't yet looked at any commentaries, and it may be a very simple answer. However, I thought I'd ask it and hope that maybe someone on here would answer (if you still stop by here).
Why does Paul say that Christ was "raised from the dead by the glory of the Father?" Why not the power or something like that? Or maybe even for the glory of the Father? Just curious to get your thoughts before (or as) I consult some commentaries.
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Anybody?
I have now looked at several commentaries. Thankfully, it wasn't a crazy question! However, I haven't yet been fully satisfied with the answers given. I'm still wrestling. I have a few more to look over. I would still love hear your feedback, and then I'll post where I think I'm leaning (key word there is 'think').
A very similar use of the word glory is found in John 11:40 about Lazarus. I see nothing unusual with Paul describing the resurrection as something that was accomplished by the glory of the Father, especially if glory is indicative of his power and majesty. My (very limited) two cents...
Dan, it seems that the commentators who address it say it means something along the lines of His glory being displayed through His power. Some skip over it, and others have stated that it's a phrase that many have questioned.
Calvin writes: "By the glory of the Father, that is, by that illustrious power by which he exhibited himself as really glorious, and as it were manifested the greatness of His glory."
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